As per our promise, we have started the online test series in the hope it will be helpful for all the GPAT aspirants.
The topics covered include:
1. Classification of antimicrobial agents
2. Quinolones as antimicrobial agents
3. Cardiac glycosides
4. Antipsychotic drugs
5. Receptors and their types
1. The main side effect of quinolones is:
a) CNS depression
b) Gum dystrophy
c) Cartilage damage
d) Tachycardia
2. The enzyme which is inhibited by the quinolones in gram-positive bacteria is:
a) DNA gyrase
b) Topoisomerase IV
c) Topoisomerase II
d) Accetyl CoA
3. What is the basic ring of the pharmacophore of the quinolones?
a) 3-methyl benzimidazole
b) 4-carboxy imidazole
c) Carboxy-4-pyridone
d) 2-methyl pyridine
4. Which of the following is responsible for the increased photo-toxicity of the quinolones?
a) Fluorine at C-2
b) Fluorine a C-8
c) COOH at C-3
d) Piperazine ring
5. Which of the following enhances the activity of the quinolones towards DNA gyrase?
a) Fluorine at C-6
b) Reduction of the double present at Carbon no. 2 & 3
c) Fluorine at C-8
d) Carbonyl ring present at C-4
6. Quinolones are contraindicated in pregnancy because:
a) The cause nausea and vomiting
b) Kidney damage
c) Cartilage damage
d) Bone marrow depression
7. Quinolones enhance the plasma concentration of:
a) Caffeine
b) Warfarin
c) Theophylline
d) All of the above
8. Quinollones with NSAIDs can be harmful as they can produce:
a) Gastric ulceration
b) CNS toxicity
c) Kidney damage
d) Liver toxicity
9. Second-generation quinolones among the following is:
a) Nalidixic acid
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Gatifloxacin
d) Moxifloxacin
10. Main mechanism of action of the quinolones is:
a) It inhibits the cell wall synthesis of the bacteria
b) It inhibits subunit A of DNA gyrase
c) It hinders the protein synthesis
d) It inhibits the activity of Topoisomerase II
11. Who is the father of chemotherapy?
a) Paul Ehlrich
b) Sidney Farber
c) Alferd Gilman
d) Emil Frei
12. What is the basic mechanism of action of tetracyclines?
a) It binds with 30S ribosomes and inhibits protein synthesis.
b) It binds with 50S ribosomes and inhibits protein synthesis.
c) It inhibits the cell wall synthesis of bacteria.
d) It inhibits nucleic acid synthesis.
13. Zidovudine inhibits the enzyme:
a) DNA gyrase
b) Transpeptidase
c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase
14. Antimicrobial agents that produce aqueous pores in the cell membrane and lead to microbial death includes
a) Streptomycin
b) Rifamycin
c) Gramicidin
d) Amoxycillin
15. Antibiotic that inhibits alanine racemase enzyme:
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Cycloserine
c) Polystatin
d) Azithromycin
16. Chloramphenicol inhibits protein synthesis by binding with which of the following enzymes?
a) Transpeptidase
b) Peptidyl transferase
c) Thymidylate synthetase
d) Thymidine kinase
17. Which of the antibiotics affects the function of cytoplasmic membranes?
a) Azithromycin
b) Ofloxacin
c) Ketoconazole
d) Streptomycin
18. Sulfonamides has the chief mechanism of action:
a) Inhibits the protein synthesis.
b) Inhibits the cell wall synthesis
c) Inhibit the conversion of Pteridine & p-Amino Benzoic acid (PABA) into dihydrofolic acid.
d) Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis in the cell.
19. Acyclovir inhibits the following enzyme:
a) Thymidine kinase
b) Thymidylate synthetase
c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase
20. Which of the following antimicrobial agent is mainly antifungal in nature?
a) Rifamycin
b) Ketoconazole
c) Clarithromycin
d) Trimethoprim
21. Cardiac glycosides exhibit their mechanism of action basically by:
a) Positive chronotropic effect
b) Positive dronotropic effect
c) Positive inotropic effect
d) Negative chronotropic effect
22. Aglycone ring of cardiac glycosides contains how many carbon atoms?
a) 17
b) 18
c) 19
d) 20
23. Which is true about the stereochemistry of the aglycone part of the cardiac glycosides?
a) A & B rings are fused trans
b) B & C rings are fused trans
c) C & D rings are fused trans
d) A & D rings are fused trans
24. Cardiac glycosides inhibit which of the enzyme?
a) Na+/K+ ATPase
b) Thymidyl synthetase
c) Myosin ATPase
d) Creatine kinase
25. Thiazine and digoxin administered together can aggravate:
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hyperthermia
d) Hypothermia
26. Which of the following is the confirmatory test for cardiac glycosides?
a) Brontrager's test
b) Kedde's test
c) Salwoki test
d) Shinoda test
27. Which is not true for the cardiac glycosides?
a) There should be β-17 lactone ring present.
b) A-B & C-D rings should be essentially fused cis.
c) OH group at C-14 should also be present in β-orientation.
d) A & C should be essentially trans.
28. Digoxin has decreased t1/2 as compared to digitoxin because:
a) Presence of one less OH group which increased hydrophilicity
b) Presence of one more OH group which increased hydrophilicity
c) Presence of one extra CH3 group which increase lipophilicity
d) Presence of one less CH3 group which increase lipophilicity
29. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated with cardenolides?
a) Quinine
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Verapamil
d) All of the above
30. Least hydrophilic drug among the following cardiac glycosides is
a) Digoxin
b) Digitoxin
c) Gitoxin
d) All have the same level of hydrophilicity
31. The ligand which neither has an affinity for the receptor nor activity is called:
a) Agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Inverse agonist
d) None of the above
32. Glycine receptors are a typical example of:
a) Voltage-gated channel
b) G protein-coupled receptor
c) Ligand gated ion chennel
d) Nuclear receptor
33. Amino terminus of the G protein coupled receptor is located at:
a) Extracellular region
b) Transmembrane region
c) Intracellular region
d) None of the above
34. Ligand to the G protein coupled receptor binds to:
a) Carboxy terminus
b) Amino terminus
c) Transmembrane region
d) Different ligands bind at different regions
35. Insulin recrptors are typical example of:
a) G protein coupled recptors
b) Transmembrane catalytic receptors
c) Ligand gated channels
d) Voltage gated channels
36. In the nuclear receptor class, ligand binds to:
a) Amino terminus
b) Carboxy terminus
c) With Heat shock protein binding region
d) Transmembrane region
37. Which of the following drug exerts their action through nuclear receptors?
a) Vitamin K
b) Estradiol
c) Nitrous oxide
d) All of the above
38. Which of the following is not G protein coupled receptor?
a) Accetyl choline
b) Adrenaline
c) Noradrenaline
d) Dopamine
39. Who called the term receptor?
a) Paul Ehlrich
b) Sidney Farber
c) Alferd Gilman
d) Emil Frei
40. Nerve conduction in sensory nerves primarily occurs through:
a) Voltage gated channels
b) Ligand gated channels
c) G protein coupled receptors
d) Nuclear receptors
41. Neuroleptics are given in the treatment of :
a) Depression
b) Schizophrenia
c) Epilepsy
d) Mania
42. Which of the phenothiazine antipsychotic drug contains piperazine moiety?
a) Chloropromazine
b) Trifluperazine
c) Triflupromazine
d) Thioridazone
43. Which of the following is a typical example of butyrophenone?
a) Pimozide
b) Haloperidol
c) Loxapine
d) Flupenthixol
44. Phenothiazenes show maximum potency when N of phenothiazine ring connected with N of alkyl side chain with how many carbon atoms?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
45. Maximum activity of the phenothiazine is obtained when the terminal amine is:
a) primary in nature
b) Secondary in nature
c) Tertiary in nature
d) None of the above
46. Potency of the phenothiazine is maximum when substitution at the phenothiazine occurs at carbon no:
a) 1
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
47. All potent butyrophenones except amiroperidone contains:
a) 4-fluro piperidine
b) 4-fluro Piperazine
c) 4-flurophenyl
d) 4-flurocyclohexyl
48. Antipsychotic drugs mainly act by :
a) DA2 agonists
b) DA2 antagonists
c) Serotonin antagonist
d) Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
49. The main side effect of the antipsychotic drug is:
a) Parkinsonian
b) CNS depression
c) Gastric hammerhage
d) Muscular dystrophy
50. Which of the following drugs show synergism with antipsychotic drugs?
a) Antihistamines.
b) Alcohol
c) Sedatives
d) All of the above
The topics covered include:
1. Classification of antimicrobial agents
2. Quinolones as antimicrobial agents
3. Cardiac glycosides
4. Antipsychotic drugs
5. Receptors and their types
1. The main side effect of quinolones is:
a) CNS depression
b) Gum dystrophy
c) Cartilage damage
d) Tachycardia
2. The enzyme which is inhibited by the quinolones in gram-positive bacteria is:
a) DNA gyrase
b) Topoisomerase IV
c) Topoisomerase II
d) Accetyl CoA
3. What is the basic ring of the pharmacophore of the quinolones?
a) 3-methyl benzimidazole
b) 4-carboxy imidazole
c) Carboxy-4-pyridone
d) 2-methyl pyridine
4. Which of the following is responsible for the increased photo-toxicity of the quinolones?
a) Fluorine at C-2
b) Fluorine a C-8
c) COOH at C-3
d) Piperazine ring
5. Which of the following enhances the activity of the quinolones towards DNA gyrase?
a) Fluorine at C-6
b) Reduction of the double present at Carbon no. 2 & 3
c) Fluorine at C-8
d) Carbonyl ring present at C-4
6. Quinolones are contraindicated in pregnancy because:
a) The cause nausea and vomiting
b) Kidney damage
c) Cartilage damage
d) Bone marrow depression
7. Quinolones enhance the plasma concentration of:
a) Caffeine
b) Warfarin
c) Theophylline
d) All of the above
8. Quinollones with NSAIDs can be harmful as they can produce:
a) Gastric ulceration
b) CNS toxicity
c) Kidney damage
d) Liver toxicity
9. Second-generation quinolones among the following is:
a) Nalidixic acid
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Gatifloxacin
d) Moxifloxacin
10. Main mechanism of action of the quinolones is:
a) It inhibits the cell wall synthesis of the bacteria
b) It inhibits subunit A of DNA gyrase
c) It hinders the protein synthesis
d) It inhibits the activity of Topoisomerase II
11. Who is the father of chemotherapy?
a) Paul Ehlrich
b) Sidney Farber
c) Alferd Gilman
d) Emil Frei
12. What is the basic mechanism of action of tetracyclines?
a) It binds with 30S ribosomes and inhibits protein synthesis.
b) It binds with 50S ribosomes and inhibits protein synthesis.
c) It inhibits the cell wall synthesis of bacteria.
d) It inhibits nucleic acid synthesis.
13. Zidovudine inhibits the enzyme:
a) DNA gyrase
b) Transpeptidase
c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase
14. Antimicrobial agents that produce aqueous pores in the cell membrane and lead to microbial death includes
a) Streptomycin
b) Rifamycin
c) Gramicidin
d) Amoxycillin
15. Antibiotic that inhibits alanine racemase enzyme:
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Cycloserine
c) Polystatin
d) Azithromycin
16. Chloramphenicol inhibits protein synthesis by binding with which of the following enzymes?
a) Transpeptidase
b) Peptidyl transferase
c) Thymidylate synthetase
d) Thymidine kinase
17. Which of the antibiotics affects the function of cytoplasmic membranes?
a) Azithromycin
b) Ofloxacin
c) Ketoconazole
d) Streptomycin
18. Sulfonamides has the chief mechanism of action:
a) Inhibits the protein synthesis.
b) Inhibits the cell wall synthesis
c) Inhibit the conversion of Pteridine & p-Amino Benzoic acid (PABA) into dihydrofolic acid.
d) Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis in the cell.
19. Acyclovir inhibits the following enzyme:
a) Thymidine kinase
b) Thymidylate synthetase
c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase
20. Which of the following antimicrobial agent is mainly antifungal in nature?
a) Rifamycin
b) Ketoconazole
c) Clarithromycin
d) Trimethoprim
21. Cardiac glycosides exhibit their mechanism of action basically by:
a) Positive chronotropic effect
b) Positive dronotropic effect
c) Positive inotropic effect
d) Negative chronotropic effect
22. Aglycone ring of cardiac glycosides contains how many carbon atoms?
a) 17
b) 18
c) 19
d) 20
23. Which is true about the stereochemistry of the aglycone part of the cardiac glycosides?
a) A & B rings are fused trans
b) B & C rings are fused trans
c) C & D rings are fused trans
d) A & D rings are fused trans
24. Cardiac glycosides inhibit which of the enzyme?
a) Na+/K+ ATPase
b) Thymidyl synthetase
c) Myosin ATPase
d) Creatine kinase
25. Thiazine and digoxin administered together can aggravate:
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hyperthermia
d) Hypothermia
26. Which of the following is the confirmatory test for cardiac glycosides?
a) Brontrager's test
b) Kedde's test
c) Salwoki test
d) Shinoda test
27. Which is not true for the cardiac glycosides?
a) There should be β-17 lactone ring present.
b) A-B & C-D rings should be essentially fused cis.
c) OH group at C-14 should also be present in β-orientation.
d) A & C should be essentially trans.
28. Digoxin has decreased t1/2 as compared to digitoxin because:
a) Presence of one less OH group which increased hydrophilicity
b) Presence of one more OH group which increased hydrophilicity
c) Presence of one extra CH3 group which increase lipophilicity
d) Presence of one less CH3 group which increase lipophilicity
29. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated with cardenolides?
a) Quinine
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Verapamil
d) All of the above
30. Least hydrophilic drug among the following cardiac glycosides is
a) Digoxin
b) Digitoxin
c) Gitoxin
d) All have the same level of hydrophilicity
31. The ligand which neither has an affinity for the receptor nor activity is called:
a) Agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Inverse agonist
d) None of the above
32. Glycine receptors are a typical example of:
a) Voltage-gated channel
b) G protein-coupled receptor
c) Ligand gated ion chennel
d) Nuclear receptor
33. Amino terminus of the G protein coupled receptor is located at:
a) Extracellular region
b) Transmembrane region
c) Intracellular region
d) None of the above
34. Ligand to the G protein coupled receptor binds to:
a) Carboxy terminus
b) Amino terminus
c) Transmembrane region
d) Different ligands bind at different regions
35. Insulin recrptors are typical example of:
a) G protein coupled recptors
b) Transmembrane catalytic receptors
c) Ligand gated channels
d) Voltage gated channels
36. In the nuclear receptor class, ligand binds to:
a) Amino terminus
b) Carboxy terminus
c) With Heat shock protein binding region
d) Transmembrane region
37. Which of the following drug exerts their action through nuclear receptors?
a) Vitamin K
b) Estradiol
c) Nitrous oxide
d) All of the above
38. Which of the following is not G protein coupled receptor?
a) Accetyl choline
b) Adrenaline
c) Noradrenaline
d) Dopamine
39. Who called the term receptor?
a) Paul Ehlrich
b) Sidney Farber
c) Alferd Gilman
d) Emil Frei
40. Nerve conduction in sensory nerves primarily occurs through:
a) Voltage gated channels
b) Ligand gated channels
c) G protein coupled receptors
d) Nuclear receptors
41. Neuroleptics are given in the treatment of :
a) Depression
b) Schizophrenia
c) Epilepsy
d) Mania
42. Which of the phenothiazine antipsychotic drug contains piperazine moiety?
a) Chloropromazine
b) Trifluperazine
c) Triflupromazine
d) Thioridazone
43. Which of the following is a typical example of butyrophenone?
a) Pimozide
b) Haloperidol
c) Loxapine
d) Flupenthixol
44. Phenothiazenes show maximum potency when N of phenothiazine ring connected with N of alkyl side chain with how many carbon atoms?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
45. Maximum activity of the phenothiazine is obtained when the terminal amine is:
a) primary in nature
b) Secondary in nature
c) Tertiary in nature
d) None of the above
46. Potency of the phenothiazine is maximum when substitution at the phenothiazine occurs at carbon no:
a) 1
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
47. All potent butyrophenones except amiroperidone contains:
a) 4-fluro piperidine
b) 4-fluro Piperazine
c) 4-flurophenyl
d) 4-flurocyclohexyl
48. Antipsychotic drugs mainly act by :
a) DA2 agonists
b) DA2 antagonists
c) Serotonin antagonist
d) Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
49. The main side effect of the antipsychotic drug is:
a) Parkinsonian
b) CNS depression
c) Gastric hammerhage
d) Muscular dystrophy
50. Which of the following drugs show synergism with antipsychotic drugs?
a) Antihistamines.
b) Alcohol
c) Sedatives
d) All of the above
you can share your views by making a comment below. We will be happy to clear your queries.
The next test series will be of the following topics:
a) Glycosides
b) Important name reactioons of organic chemistry
c) Antiviral drugs
d) Tablets
e) Phytochemical screening
The next test series will be of the following topics:
a) Glycosides
b) Important name reactioons of organic chemistry
c) Antiviral drugs
d) Tablets
e) Phytochemical screening
Click here for the next test.
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This is an initiative to help our pharma community through spreading the knowledge. We are here committed to provide you high quality study material free of cost. If you also want to be the part of this initiative just like and share our facebook page so that more and more people can be benefited. Here is the link of our FB community: GPATCRACKERS
Answers to the above questions:
ReplyDelete1c 2b 3c 4b 5a 6c 7d 8b 9b 10b 11a 12a 13c 14c 15b 16b 17c 18c 19a 20b 21c 22a 23b 24a 25b 26b 27d 28b 29d 30b 31c 32c 33a 34b 35b 36b 37d 38a 39a 40a 41b 42b 43b 44b 45c 46d 47c 48b 49a 50d
It's superb n helpful for all the GPAT aspirants. Thanx for this useful test series. We hope u'll continue this to help us more.
ReplyDeleteThanks for your appreciation. I hope it will help you in the preparation of the GPAT
Deletesir it will be a great help if u add a article on numericals
ReplyDeleteSure dear. We will soon add an article on the numericals. Hope you are benefited with our work.
Delete